What is the value of cos-1(-x) for all x belongs to [-1, 1]?
Correct Answer :
π – cos⁻¹(x)
Solution :
The correct option is π �� cos⁻¹(x).
To understand why this relationship holds, let us derive it step-by-step using the definition of inverse trigonometric functions.
Let:
By definition of the inverse cosine function, for
, the value of
must lie in the principal value branch, which is:
From the equation
, we can rewrite this by taking the cosine of both sides:
Multiplying both sides by -1 gives:
Using the trigonometric identity
which represents the second quadrant where cosine is negative, we can substitute it into our equation:
Now, taking the inverse cosine of both sides:
Rearranging the terms to solve for
:
Substituting our original assumption for
back into the equation yields the final formula:
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