sin-1x+cos1x equals to
Correct Answer :
π/2
Solution :
The correct option is π/2.
To understand why this is correct, let us look at the relationship between the inverse trigonometric functions. We want to find the value of the expression:
Let us define a variable, say, , as follows:
By the definition of the inverse sine function, this is equivalent to:
Using the trigonometric co-function identity, we know that the sine of an angle is equal to the cosine of its complement:
Substituting this back into our equation for , we get:
Taking the inverse cosine of both sides gives:
Now, we substitute the definition of back into the equation:
Finally, rearranging the terms by adding to both sides of the equation leads to:
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