If the Laplace transform of a function π(π) is given by , then π(π) is
Correct Answer :
1
Solution :
The correct option is 1.
To find the value of from its Laplace transform , we can use the Initial Value Theorem of Laplace transforms.
The Initial Value Theorem states that if a function and its derivative are Laplace transformable, then:
Here, the Laplace transform is given by:
Now, let's construct the expression :
Next, we evaluate the limit of as approaches infinity. To simplify this limit, divide the numerator and the denominator by the highest power of , which is :
As , the terms and approach :
Thus, the value of is .
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