A function is invertible if it is
Correct Answer :
bijective
Solution :
The correct option is bijective.
To understand why an invertible function must be bijective, let us break down the concepts of invertibility, injectivity, and surjectivity step-by-step.
1. What is an Invertible Function?
A function mapping elements from set to set is said to be invertible if there exists a unique inverse function such that for every element in the domain and codomain, the application of both functions returns the original element. That is, for all , and for all .
For this inverse function to be a well-defined function itself, it must satisfy two crucial requirements: every element in must map back to exactly one element in .
2. Requirement of Injectivity (One-to-One)
A function is injective (or one-to-one) if distinct elements in the domain map to distinct elements in the codomain. If were not injective, two different elements and in would map to the same element in . When we attempt to define the inverse, would have to map to both and . This violates the fundamental definition of a function, which states that each input must have a single, unique output. Thus, must be injective.
3. Requirement of Surjectivity (Onto)
A function is surjective (or onto) if every element in the codomain is mapped to by at least one element in the domain . If were not surjective, there would be some element in that has no pre-image in . Consequently, when trying to define the inverse, there would be no target for in set . A valid function must be defined for all elements in its domain, so would not be a well-defined function. Thus, must be surjective.
4. Conclusion
Since a function must be both injective (to ensure uniqueness of the reverse mapping) and surjective (to ensure completeness of the reverse mapping) to have a well-defined inverse, it must be bijective (which is defined as being both injective and surjective).
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